/22 0 votes, 0 avg Report a question What’s wrong with this question? You cannot submit an empty report. Please add some details. Hypertensive Disorders in Pregnancy Welcome to the quiz on Hypertension in Pregnancy! This topic covers a range of conditions from gestational hypertension to preeclampsia and eclampsia—key contributors to maternal and fetal complications. These MCQs will test your grasp on diagnosis, classification, complications, and management strategies. Time to check how well you know your pregnancy pressures! 1 / 22 MgSO4 Excreted in urine Tendon reflexes are suppressed in toxicity Check Incorrect answers Correct answers Magnesium sulfate is: Excreted in the urine. Suppresses tendon reflexes in toxicity. Is the drug of choice for eclampsia. 2 / 22 A 30 years old primigravida was admitted with severe pre-eclampsia at 30 weeks of gestation. She was treated with magnesium sulphate. Two hours later there was absent knee reflexes and respiratory rate was 12/min. The next step in the management, Discontinue MgSO4 Give calcium gluconate Intravenous dexamethasone Oxygen by mask Measure serum magnesium level Incorrect option Correct option is: Give calcium gluconate The patient has magnesium sulfate toxicity. The next step is to give calcium gluconate, the antidote for magnesium toxicity. Discontinuing MgSO4 is necessary but giving the antidote is crucial. Dexamethasone is for fetal lung maturity. Oxygen is supportive. Measuring serum magnesium levels confirms toxicity but treatment should not be delayed. 3 / 22 Which of the following is/are true regarding pre-eclampsia? Presence of proteinuria is necessary for diagnosis Fetal Growth Restriction is a complication The risk of developing HELLP syndrome is directly proportional to the severity of blood pressure Antihypertensive treatment improves fetal outcome Aspirin reduces risk of pre eclampsia Check Incorrect answers Correct answers Regarding pre-eclampsia: Proteinuria is no longer required for diagnosis. Fetal growth restriction is a known complication. The risk of HELLP syndrome is associated with, but not directly proportional to, the severity of blood pressure. Antihypertensive treatment improves *maternal*, but not consistently fetal, outcomes. Aspirin reduces the risk of pre-eclampsia in high-risk women. 4 / 22 41 yr old mother presented on her 12 week POA, following three uncomplicated vaginal deliveries. Her Last child was 11 years old and her BMI 22 kgm2, her pregnancy was uncomplicated upto now, she is currently on folic acid 1mg and ca supplement. what is most appropriate next step of management? Increase Ca supplements Increase to therapeutic dose of iron Initiate 5mg of folic acid Initiate low dose Aspirin Initiate micronized progesterone Incorrect option selected Correct option This patient is at increased risk of pre-eclampsia due to her age and multiparity. Low-dose aspirin is recommended for prophylaxis in women at high risk of pre-eclampsia, and is most effective when started before 16 weeks of gestation. Increasing calcium supplementation is not a standard recommendation for pre-eclampsia prophylaxis in this scenario. There’s no indication for high-dose folic acid or increased iron. Micronized progesterone is used for recurrent miscarriage, not pre-eclampsia. 5 / 22 Regarding Magnesium sulphate, Excreted by the kidneys. Drug of choice for management of eclampsia. Must not be used with nifedipine. Toxicity is treated with calcium gluconate. Toxicity causes tachypnoea. Check Incorrect answers Correct answers Magnesium sulfate is: Excreted by the kidneys, the drug of choice for eclampsia, and its toxicity is treated with calcium gluconate. It *can* be used with nifedipine. Toxicity causes *respiratory depression*, not tachypnea. 6 / 22 A 25 years old lady with a past history of two miscarriages now on her 3rd pregnancy, present with BP 160/100mmHg. On USS foetal heart sound absent. What Investigation will help to diagnose the cause? HbA1C Lupus anticoagulant TORCH screening OGTT TSH Incorrect option Correct option is: Lupus anticoagulant The patient’s history of recurrent miscarriages and hypertension suggests antiphospholipid syndrome (APS). The lupus anticoagulant test helps diagnose APS. HbA1C and OGTT are for diabetes. TORCH screening is for infections. TSH is for thyroid disease. 7 / 22 35 year old primi pregnant lady at 35 weeks of POG was found to have a blood pressure of 160/110 mmHg. During further evaluation, Pre-eclampsia was diagnosed. She was given hydralazine and MgS04 after admission. She underwent EM/LSCS under spinal anesthesia. After 30 minutes, she was brought to the ward. BP Was] 30/90 mmHg. she is stable and no new complaints. What is the best examination finding to identify Mg toxicity? Absence of bicep jerk Absence of Ankle Clonus Absence of knee jerk Absent urine output Respiratory rate 1 5/min Incorrect option Correct answer The first sign of magnesium toxicity is absence of knee jerk reflexes. Other signs include: Absence of ankle clonus (not the *first* sign), absent urine output (later sign), respiratory rate 15/min (respiratory depression is a sign of toxicity, but less than 16 is not usually the first indicator), and absence of biceps jerk. 8 / 22 28-year-old primi mother presented to hospital at 36 weeks of POA with hypertension. On admission her BP was 150/100 mmHg, albumin was 2+, pulse rate 82 bpm, respiratory rate 16/minute. SpO2 – 99%. After 12 hours of admission her BP was 160/110 mmHg. She has headache, vomiting, visual haloes, right hypochondriac pain. On examination ankle clonus was present, no neck stiffness. What is the most appropriate next step in Management? CTG IV MgSO4 Immediate delivery Diazepam O2 Incorrect option Correct option selected The patient has severe pre-eclampsia with signs of end-organ involvement (headache, vomiting, visual disturbances, right hypochondrial pain) and ankle clonus. The most appropriate next step is IV magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis. CTG is important for fetal monitoring. Immediate delivery may be necessary but not before stabilizing the patient and preventing seizures. Diazepam is not the first-line agent for eclampsia prevention. Oxygen is supportive but does not address the primary concern. 9 / 22 A 26 year old pregnant lady at POG of 36 weeks was detected of having Blood pressure of 160/110 mmHg. She developed a generalized tonic clonic seizure. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient? Infusion of 0.9% Saline IV Labetalol Bolus IV diazepam 5mg IV MgS04 4g Bolus EM-I-SCS Incorrect option Correct answer The patient has eclampsia (pre-eclampsia with seizures). The most appropriate next step is to give IV magnesium sulfate 4g bolus to control the seizure and prevent recurrence. Infusion of 0.9% saline is important but secondary. IV labetalol is for hypertensive control, not seizure management. IV diazepam may stop the current seizure, but magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for eclampsia. Delivery (EM-I-SCS) is indicated but only *after* stabilizing the patient and controlling the seizure. 10 / 22 A primi mother 38/52 of POG admitted due to severe headache. On admission developed GTC seizure. On examination BP – 140/110 mmHg, FHS – 140bpm, UFR – protein 2+. Oropharyngeal airway is inserted. What is the next management? Give MgSO4 Immediate delivery IV diazepam Reduce BP with appropriate IV antihypertensive drug Perform coagulation profile Incorrect option Correct answer is: Give MgSO4 The patient has eclampsia. The next management step is to give magnesium sulfate (MgSO4) to prevent further seizures. Delivery is important but after stabilizing the patient. IV diazepam can stop the *current* seizure, but MgSO4 prevents recurrent eclampsia. Reducing BP is important but MgSO4 is the priority. Coagulation profile is part of the workup, but seizure prevention comes first. 11 / 22 A 25 years old primigravida was presented with epigastric pain and severe frontal headache at a period of gestation of 35 weeks. Her blood pressure was 160/110 mmHg. She was not in labour. The cervix was uneffaced. She had a single foetus in the cephalic presentation. The CTG was normal. Her urine albumin was positive. The coagulation profile was normal. She was given a bolus dose of 4 g of magnesium sulphate. The best management option is, Oral nifedipine 20mg twice daily Intravenous injection of 10mg of diazepam Caesarean section as soon as possible Insert a prostaglandin pessary Observe in the intensive care unit Incorrect option Correct option is: Caesarean section as soon as possible The patient has severe pre-eclampsia with epigastric pain and headache, indicating increased risk for maternal complications. The best management is delivery, and with an unfavorable cervix, Cesarean section is often the most expedient option. Oral nifedipine is for blood pressure control but does not address the need for delivery. Diazepam is not the primary treatment. Prostaglandin pessary is for cervical ripening, but the patient needs prompt delivery. Observation in the ICU is for *postpartum* management, not the active management of severe pre-eclampsia. (RCOG Green-top Guideline No. 10(a), 2019) 12 / 22 Which of the following is used in management of pre-eclampsia in a woman with a blood pressure of 160/110 mmHg at 32 weeks? Diclofenac sodium suppositories Intramuscular dexamethasone IV labetalol IV MgSO4 Sublingual nifedipine Incorrect option Correct option selected A blood pressure of 160/110 mmHg indicates severe hypertension. IV labetalol is a first-line antihypertensive medication for severe pre-eclampsia. IV magnesium sulfate is used for seizure prophylaxis. Diclofenac sodium suppositories and IM dexamethasone are not used. Sublingual nifedipine can be used for acute hypertension, but IV labetalol is preferred in this scenario. 13 / 22 24 years old primi gravida, in 33weeks of POA, presented with severe frontal headache & vomiting. Her BP is 140/95 mmHg, reflexes are exaggerated, 3 beat clonus present. What is the most appropriate next step in Management? Immediate cesarean section Give IV hydralazine Give IV magnesium sulphate Give steroid injection Perform USS Incorrect option Correct option is: Give IV magnesium sulphate The patient has severe pre-eclampsia. The most appropriate next step is IV magnesium sulfate to prevent seizures. Immediate Cesarean section is not the first step. IV hydralazine is for blood pressure control but not seizure prevention. Steroids are for fetal lung maturity, not acute management. Ultrasound is not the priority. 14 / 22 Features of MgSO4 toxicity, Bradycardia Uterine overstimulation. Reduced urine output. Respiratory depression. Slurred speech Check Incorrect options Correct options Features of magnesium sulfate toxicity include: Reduced urine output, respiratory depression, slurred speech. Bradycardia is a later sign. Uterine overstimulation is not a feature of magnesium toxicity; it is used to prevent seizures. 15 / 22 35 year old primi with BP of 150/100, POA 30 weeks, asymptomatic, normal tendon reflexes. Most appropriate Ix to assess severity of the condition? Serum C Low platelet Albumin Urine albumin USS Incorrect option Correct option is: Urine albumin The patient has hypertension in pregnancy. To assess the severity, the most appropriate investigation is urine albumin (proteinuria). Low platelet count, serum creatinine, and elevated liver enzymes are also important in assessing severity, but are not listed. Serum C3 is not used to assess the *severity* of pre-eclampsia. Ultrasound is important for fetal well-being, but urine albumin assesses *maternal* severity. 16 / 22 A 43 year old multipara who is a diagnosed pt with chronic HTN and renal disease presented to antenatal clinic in 6 weeks of POA. Her BP 160/100 and has significant proteinuria. She is on losartan. What is the best drug for her management? Enalapril Hydrochlorothiazide Labetalol Losartan Nifedipine Incorrect option Correct answer Losartan and enalapril are contraindicated in pregnancy. Labetalol is a safe and effective antihypertensive in pregnancy, especially in women with chronic hypertension. Hydrochlorothiazide can be used, but is not the first-line agent in this case. Nifedipine is also safe, but labetalol is often preferred for chronic hypertension in pregnancy, especially with renal disease. 17 / 22 A 26 year old primigravida receiving magnesium sulphate for severe preeclampsia and monitored in HDU. What is the 1st sign of magnesium toxicity? Altered level of consciousness Bradycardia Reduced uop Loss of deep tendon reflexes Respiratory depression Incorrect option Correct answer The first sign of magnesium toxicity is loss of deep tendon reflexes. Other signs of magnesium toxicity occur sequentially: Reduced urine output, respiratory depression, altered level of consciousness, and bradycardia are later signs. 18 / 22 A 20-year-old primigravida at 38 weeks of gestation is admitted with increasing swelling of both her legs during last three days. Her antenatal period is uncomplicated. her blood pressure is 150/100 mmHg and modified Bishop score is 5. Her cardiotocograph is normal. What is the most important next step in her management? Advise her to have bed rest and reassess in four hours Carry out investigations Induce with prostaglandin Oral nifedipine to control the blood pressure Perform emergency caesarean section Incorrect option Correct answer The patient has hypertension and swelling, suggesting pre-eclampsia. The most important next step is to carry out investigations to confirm the diagnosis and assess the severity. Bed rest and reassessment, oral nifedipine, and induction may be considered later, but only after proper evaluation. Emergency Cesarean is not indicated at this stage. 19 / 22 Features of magnesium toxicity Acute renal failure Respiratory depression Hyper stimulation of uterus Respiratory depression Slurred speech Check Incorrect options Correct options Features of magnesium toxicity include: Respiratory depression, slurred speech. Acute renal failure and hyperstimulation of the uterus are not features of magnesium toxicity. 20 / 22 38 year old primi presented with convulsion in 30wks of POA with albuminuria. What is the most beneficial drug? Dexamethasone Hydralazine Diazepam MgSO4 Nifedipine Incorrect option Correct answer The patient has eclampsia. The most beneficial drug is magnesium sulfate to prevent further seizures. Dexamethasone is used for fetal lung maturity. Hydralazine and nifedipine are antihypertensives. Diazepam can stop a seizure, but magnesium sulfate is superior in preventing recurrent eclamptic seizures. 21 / 22 A previously healthy primigravida is admitted with a blood pressure of 220/120 mmHg at 31 weeks of gestation. Urine dipstick reveals 2+ proteinuria Administer a bolus dose of 4 g of magnesium sulphate Administer intravenous hydralazine Administer oral labetalol Catheterize the woman Perform an emergency caesarean section Incorrect option Correct option selected The patient has severe pre-eclampsia. The most appropriate initial step is to administer a bolus dose of 4 g of magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis. Intravenous hydralazine or oral labetalol are used to control blood pressure. Catheterization is often needed, but MgSO4 is the priority. Emergency Cesarean section may be needed but not before stabilizing the patient. 22 / 22 Indications for the use of low dose aspirin during pregnancy, High parity Increased umbilical artery Doppler resistance. Previous T1 miscarriage Preexisting diabetes mellitus Past history of SLE Check Incorrect answers Correct answers Low-dose aspirin is recommended to reduce the risk of pre-eclampsia in women with specific risk factors. These include: Pre-existing diabetes mellitus. A past history of SLE. Increased umbilical artery Doppler resistance. High parity and previous first-trimester miscarriage are not established indications for low-dose aspirin for pre-eclampsia prevention. Your score isThe average score is 18% 0% #eclampsia #preeclampsia